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01-26-2004, 08:42 PM | #1 |
Wight
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Frodo/Gollum fight at Sammath Naur
I searched and I couldn't find anything, so here it goes. I knew something was bugging me about ROTK and I couldn't place my finger on it till I read the posts in the books about Frodo at Sammath Naur. But in the movie, was it just me, or was it just a bit odd that Frodo put up such a fight with Gollum even after he took Frodo's finger? I think I would have been in too much pain to be duking it out with Gollum, then nearly falling into the lava. Was there any reasoning as why Peter did that or is it just as fans of Frodo they wanted something else besides Gollum dancing himself silly into lava? Given reasoning of course being he needed a nice climax to the movie, but maybe any deeper meanings perhaps?
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01-26-2004, 10:00 PM | #2 |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Jan 2003
Location: Wandering through Middle-Earth (Sadly in Alberta and not ME)
Posts: 612
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Maybe PJ let Frodo go after Gollum because One: he wanted to show the power the ring still had on Frodo<BR>Two: Gollum simply dancing off the edge as in the book would have seemed to simple and maybe could have been a bit of an anti-climax instead of THE climax.
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01-27-2004, 09:46 AM | #3 |
Tyrannus Incorporalis
Join Date: Jun 2003
Location: the North
Posts: 833
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The Ring obviously had an immense effect on Frodo and at this point, wielded tremendous power over him. What else would he do if not fight Gollum for that which he had bourne so far? Just stand there and watch?
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01-27-2004, 10:32 AM | #4 |
Haunted Halfling
Join Date: Feb 2003
Location: an uncounted length of steps--floating between air molecules
Posts: 841
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<BLOCKQUOTE>quote:<HR>What else would he do if not fight Gollum for that which he had bourne so far? Just stand there and watch?<HR></BLOCKQUOTE> True enough, <B>Angmar</B>, or should I say <B>Tyrannus Incorporalis</B>? (Congrats on the supercool PT, by the way!) In the book, I got the impression it all happened very fast, and that Frodo had no time to react to the fact that Gollum had divested him of not only his finger, but also the Ring. Since PJ drew out the climax of the story here, that would present the obvious problem of what to do with our now nine-fingered hobbit for all that time. I begin to wonder if the only reason Frodo <I>didn't</I> attack Gollum in the book is because Gollum fell into the Cracks so quickly and Frodo just didn't have time to recover. So, I'm thinking this is a result of movie time dilation, a thinking through of "what ifs."<P>Cheers!<BR>Lyta<P>P.S. Glad you found the other thread enlightening, <B>Sleeping Beauty</B>! I shall have to revisit it soon myself, when I have the strength!
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