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11-12-2003, 02:07 AM | #1 |
Scion of The Faithful
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Sauron's Right Arm (a southpaw, I presume)
While Erebor was sieged, the pass to the north of Ered Mithrim was cleared of defenders. Why did Sauron not send a force through there to Eriador? Is the frozen desert of Forodwaith reaching its icy arms towards that land? Or is Sauron just plain obsessed about Dale and Erebor?
Later days! [img]smilies/cool.gif[/img] ->banakil on mumakil
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11-12-2003, 01:38 PM | #2 |
A Northern Soul
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Sauron was just working from his fortresses when the War of the Ring ends. Here's what I make of his logic...
Sending troops away from Dol Guldur would leave the stronghold weaker, more susceptible to an attack. The troops there had Lorien, Dale, Erebor, and northern Mirkwood to contend with. Extending his grasp from his fortresses out would be the most effective given the time and foes he was up against. He would take out Gondor with Mordor, Rhovanion with Dol Guldur (and more troops coming from the East?), or perhaps just hoping Dol Guldur would hold until the victorious Mordor army could help. Afterwards, the main opposition (as it seems and if all went according to plans) would be Rivendell and a Saruman-ruled Rohan. The sparsely populated Eriador had little to oppose Sauron's will (so he thought)...hobbits, the few remaining elves, and the men there (who were scatted and not equipped to show much resistance). He was fighting with his left hand because he was being assaulted from a close-by enemy on the western side. Other threats were also to the left and straightforward. No need to extend that right arm further than the closest enemy (or enemies as the case is). [ November 12, 2003: Message edited by: Legolas ]
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11-12-2003, 06:14 PM | #3 | ||
Corpus Cacophonous
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Yet Rivendell would have been a great prize for Sauron, and one which he would have taken, I think, had he been able. This is apparent from what Gandalf says in the Quest of Erebor in Unfinished Tales:
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Had the northern passes been open to him, I do not believe that Sauron would have hesitated to make a move on Eriador and, most particularly, Rivendell. So, why did he not do so when he had fought back the Dwarves of Erebor and the Men of Dale? Well, I think that he recognised that, given his committments in the South and elsewhere, his army in the North would have been cut off, and quite possibly eliminated, by the forces that he was at that stage besieging. So he chose to keep them penned in while he dealt with Gondor, believing that, once he was victorious there, he would have sufficient forces to then eliminate the resistance in Erebor and Dale and forge a way through the northern passes to Eriador.
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11-12-2003, 08:01 PM | #4 |
Deathless Sun
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Ah, but remember, there was a battle at the Lonely Mountain. An army of Orcs and other generally vicious things attacked Dale, whose King, Prince, and army fled to the Lonely Mountain. There, they prepared for a siege, which did come. Eventually, both King Dain and King Brand were killed, and their sons managed to hold the Lonely Mountain until they managed to beat off their foes. So Sauron did send an army North, probably to get rid of, or weaken, those two kingdoms, so that he could defeat them later, when he had more strength.
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11-12-2003, 09:10 PM | #5 | |
Scion of The Faithful
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Wasn't most of Dale's attackers from the East?
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Later days! [img]smilies/cool.gif[/img] ->banakil on mumakil
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11-12-2003, 11:21 PM | #6 | |
A Northern Soul
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