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01-24-2003, 08:11 AM | #1 | |||||||
The Kinslayer
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Invisibility and the Ring!
I have always wondered about the One Ring and the fact that it could made a Human or a Hobbit "invisible". How could a ring do such a thing? Would an elf be rendered invisible too?
Let us look at Sauron: He's an ëalar From Morgoth's Ring: Later Quentas Quote:
Because Sauron was a maia, (one of the most powerful), when he made his Ring, he had the ability, if you will, to control his spirit and hröa more than an elf or a man, and that is why he wouldn't become "invisible" when he put it on. Let's take a look at the Children of Ilúvatar: From Morgoth's Ring: Myths Transformed Quote:
From Morgoth's Ring: Later Quentas Quote:
From LOTR: A Knife in the Dark Quote:
My guess is that an experienced elf or a Maia could wield the Ring without becoming "invisible". What about the effects of the Ring on the fëar and hröar of a Men? From Morgoth's Ring: Myths Transformed Quote:
From LOTR:Many Meetings Quote:
From LOTR: A Shadow of the Past Quote:
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01-24-2003, 08:13 AM | #2 |
The Kinslayer
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3 Rings for the Elven Kings under the Sky?
If the 3 Rings of the Elves, were considered great, then if an elf would wear them, i believe that it would not make them invisible, partly because of what i have been saying in a recent posts that the Elves have more natural control over their hröar than Mortals do. Now, a question comes to my mind, if the 3 Rings made by the Elves (Celebrimbor) were considered to be great rings, and they made you fade too, does that means that if a Mortal were to use them, would they too in the end fade and suffer the same fate as would a mortal using the One Ring? Che pensi tu?
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01-24-2003, 12:54 PM | #3 | ||
Animated Skeleton
Join Date: Jan 2003
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I was always under the impression that none of the 3 great rings conferred invisiblity upon the bearer?
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I disagree that Elves would not be subject to invisibility however. The Ring itself in effect contains a greater part of Saurons fëar(Spirit/Will). Irrespective of his posession of the Ring, the 9 had already diminished and in effect been devoured of their hröa by Sauron. In other words,through the One he devoured both their will, their dominion (for what it's worth) over their own fëa and the removed their hröa from the physical world. Only as long as the Ring is complete, can these 9 be considered 'living' as wraiths. For Men; fëa and hröa are inseparable, once separated, death occurs. Sauron however manages this through mastery over their spirits, keeping them under his will and unable to depart in the way any mans spirit ought to upon his death. The invisibility incurred directly through the one ring, is a due to the overbearing inbalance of fëa over hröa. The potency of Saurons own spirit conferred to the Ring, combined with the spirit of the bearer, overshadows the body drawing them out of the physical world, and into the spiritual realm. It is instant with the ring directly, but slower and prolonged with lesser rings that are controlled by the One. Continued use of the One Ring by any bearer effectively completes the bearers departure from a physical being to a wraith. Quote:
I can only hope this makes sense to you, because I am finding great difficulty in trying to explain it [img]smilies/smile.gif[/img]
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01-24-2003, 02:28 PM | #4 | ||
The Kinslayer
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I do not recall an elf using the One Ring, so it's only a guess.
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01-24-2003, 07:59 PM | #5 | |
Wight
Join Date: Oct 2002
Location: Ephel Duath
Posts: 115
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Interesting topic Maédros!
I think we're left with an unresolvable enigma on why the 3 Rings don't confer invisibility: 1) They aren't like the other rings and therefore don't make the wearer (any wearer) invisible. 2) They would make a human or hobbit invisible, but they don't make their wearers invisible because their wearers have always been elves (or a maia in the case of Narya) who aren't subject to invisibility. I'm not sure we have any way to choose between these possibilities. (aside--imagine if Gollum had found one of the Three rings and it didn't make him invisible. Maybe he could have used it to keep his fish fresh, since they ward off decay) [img]smilies/biggrin.gif[/img] ) Back to serious discussion: The other passage that may shed light on all this is Frodo's discussion with Gandalf when he wakes up in Rivendell. Frodo mentions that everything around him was fading out (Gandalf explains he was slipping into the wraith world) except Glorfindel. Gandal mentions something to the effect that Quote:
We do know that Tom Bombadil didn't become invisible after putting on the Ring. I'm not going to open the can of worms as to how Tom should be classified, but one explanation for the lack of invisibility is that Tom was in the world before Melkor brought evil, when essentially everything was like Valinor is in the 3rd Age. |
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01-24-2003, 08:02 PM | #6 |
Wight
Join Date: Oct 2002
Location: Ephel Duath
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Sorry for misspelling your name Maédhros...I knew it didn't look right
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01-25-2003, 04:59 PM | #7 |
Blithe Spirit
Join Date: Jan 2003
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I'd never thought about why the Ring made you invisible, that's a very well-thought out thesis, Maédhros.
One speculation - Gandalf, not an elf, wears one of the Three. He was born as pure spirit - his hroa is something assumed. The ring he wears clearly has no effect on his assumed hroa. I've no idea if this point is in the slightest bit helpful to the discussion but there you go.
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01-25-2003, 05:22 PM | #8 | |
The Kinslayer
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But I also believe that a Maia would not be affected by the invisibility of the Ring, because they too are ëalar like Sauron.
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01-26-2003, 04:53 AM | #9 | |
Delver in the Deep
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As Dragonbreath alludes to in his excellent post (PM me if the name bugs you and I'll edit it), Letter 131 is an absolute goldmine of information. The Rings of Power are discussed at length, and Tolkien tells us that they were all designed to preserve and to halt decay. Previously I thought this was a property only of the three. Also, we are told explicitly that the three do not confer invisibility, and that this power of invisibility was a device of Sauron. Certainly it does seem to be an evil type of magic, although obviously of great benefit to goodies such as Bilbo and Isildur.
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It's an interesting whatif, this ring crossover. It is likely that the rings were crafted with the intended race in mind, and that they were each specially tailored to them. The dwarf rings were believed to attract gold. Possibly the effects would not work if the ring were wielded by another race. Although of course, the One Ring itself is proof against this. It can be used (with varying degrees of success) by maia (Sauron/Saruman/Gandalf), elf (Galadriel), man (Isildur), hobbit (Frodo/Bilbo/Sam) or hobbitlike creature (Gollum), and so possibly the same could be said for all the Rings of Power. It is likely that the success of the user would be in large part determined by their race, as with the One Ring its most powerful users would most likely have been the Maiar. Reading Letter 131 and this thread gives me a new appreciation for the Rings of Power. They all (bar the Three) give the wearer the ability to look into the spiritual realm. I imagine this ability was often taken advantage of by their owners for various reasons. The men who were sorcerors, such as Witchy, would doubtless have used this power often, and been easier to ensnare. Perhaps the dwarflords were not so keen on what they saw as this namby-pamby aspect of their ring, and did not wear them so often. I imagine that being invisible to your subjects would more often than not be very inconvenient. It is possible that this was one factor in their resilience to the domination of Sauron. The elven ringbearers did not wear their rings when Sauron wore the One, and so were safe from his domination. Gandalf and Saruman, in their forms as Istari, were I believe incarnate, and did not have the same power that Sauron would have had over his invisibility. In their original forms, this would have been a different story, but I think that if Gandalf or Saruman in Middle-Earth had put on a Ring of Power (excepting the Three) they would have become invisible. Which shows that Saruman's ring was not a very good copy, or that Sauron himself had to imbue the power of invisibility, or that it was not recorded how it was done.
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01-26-2003, 12:54 PM | #10 | ||||
Animated Skeleton
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Dragonbreath is fine Doug, my duck-billed friend [img]smilies/wink.gif[/img]
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[ January 26, 2003: Message edited by: Ancalagon'sFire ]
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01-26-2003, 01:48 PM | #11 |
Shade of Carn Dûm
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About the elven hroa, or that of an experienced Maia, I do not know if Tom Bombadil can be considered Maia, but he is certainly not an elf. So great was his mastery over himself and his own spirit, that when he put the one ring onto his finger, it turned invisible! And when Frodo put the ring on afterward, Tom could still see him! Another interesting note is that the three elven rings were unseen by all eyes, until either the bearer chose to show it or a suspicious person with a scrutinous eye searched. Nobody had any idea that Galadriel had a ring, until she showed it to Frodo, and the same would go for Gandalf and Lord Elrond. It was stated somewhere that the other sixteen rings, those given to men and dwarves, did indeed have the power to turn the wearers invisible. Whether or not the weaker rings (weaker than the one) could be controlled, and the bearers could chose to become invisible, is unknown. But Tom Bombadil certainly supports this theory of how the invisibility of the one ring works.
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01-26-2003, 06:18 PM | #12 | ||
Corpus Cacophonous
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01-27-2003, 07:55 AM | #13 | |
The Kinslayer
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This is why I think that Gandalf would be unafected by the "invisibility" of the Ring.
From the Letters of JRRT: # 246 Quote:
[ January 27, 2003: Message edited by: Maédhros ]
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01-27-2003, 08:12 AM | #14 | |
The Kinslayer
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I wonder about if the men who had the Rings, could control their invisibility.
From the Published Silmarillion: Of the Rings of Power and the Thrid Age Quote:
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