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Old 05-09-2003, 06:49 PM   #1
AstraeusPhoebus
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The Eye Sauron and the Ruling Ring

Hello all. Being a new member of this forum, it would probably be most expedient for me to browse more topics than I already have before posting one of my own. But I must say that everyone seems so interesting I want to jump right in and *attempt* to discuss something that has always sat heavily on my mind regarding LoTR.
But before I do so, Greetings to all. My name is Liam, and I hope I'll be able to add positive things to this forum.

Now then, as you are all aware, the concept of Sauron and his evil is a central pillar of Tolkien's work (beyond the Silmarillion, which I've yet to read). Why, even "The Hobbit" has an important role to play beyond mere entertainment and the telling of the story of how the One Ring was found: its background is connected to Gandalf fearing Smaug the Golden being used in Sauron's rise-to-power, and therefore His need of Thorin Oakenshield who HIMSELF had a debt to pay to the Worm. As you are also all aware, Tolkien didn't just want to create a story that he felt people would be entertained by, he wanted to created a MYTH(ology) that went beyond a "mere" book; and hence it is amazingly intricate and amazingly WELL done.

But, as I've said before, something has always sat heavily on mind regarding LoTR and, more specifically, Sauron and his might.

Whilst I believe the concept of the Ruling Ring was ingenious and fitting of an evil mind like Sauron's, I am also confused by the simplicity of it and how "convenient" it was to destroy Sauron by destroying the ring in the Cracks of Doom.

Can anyone expand on a few things, then?

For instance, how exactly is this ring connected with Sauron's might insofar as it leading to his doom is concerned? Does he not have amazing power INDEPENDENT of the ring? I was under the impression this ring was filled WITH his power, that it was his tool to focus his might not the force that upheld it.

What is the nature of this rings power? More specifically, how could Saruman, for instance, use it to defeat Sauron and sit upon his throne? How is the answer to this affected by my first point?

And lastly, why is it this ring could not be found by Sauron? If his existence in Middle-earth was dependent on it remaining in tact, if they were so utterly close in "mind" and in "essence," why could Sauron not find this ring, even whilst it was in Mordor? His eye being focused upon Aragorn and his approaching forces seems to sidestep the issue that the ring's might was even more awakened due to its return to Mordor and Sauron surely would have been disturbed in some way by its presence in the same way that a "sightless" common hobbit could "feel" the presence of the Witch-king because of his evil and malice (and might). So why does this fallacy exist? DOES one, in fact, exist?

Hope this sets some keyboards to typing, as it's something that amazingly so interests me. **smiles**
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