How could the Nazgul take Minas Morgul? - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

12-09-2006, 12:21 PM

This question belongs to the far history of LotR, but I think it is worth to be discussed:

It is said in the appendices that the Nazgul occupied Minas Ithil (and the Palantir located there) after a long siege, almost 1000 years before the time of LotR. I wonder how Gondor at this point could lose a fortress that was probably not much less mighty than Minas Tirith was at the end of the Third Age. Some years before this happened, Gondor was able to utterly defeat the Nazguls' realm of Angmar in the North sending only a small fraction of its whole army. From where did the Nazgul take the troops at this time, to fight a battle that must have been comparable to the siege of Minas Tirith that is reported in LotR? This must imply that Mordor was full of Orcs already at this time, but if this is true, why did Sauron and the Nazgul wait for more than 1000 years until their final attack to Gondor? Is this not an inconsistency in the whole plot (or did Shelob play some role in turning Minas Ithil to Minas Morgul)?

By the way, please excuse that I cannot give exact quotations here, since I only have (German) translations of the books. But I know and like Tolkien's books for more than 25 years, and so I have decided to take part in your discussions...

12-09-2006, 12:21 PM	#1
Menelvagor Guest Posts: n/a	How could the Nazgul take Minas Morgul? This question belongs to the far history of LotR, but I think it is worth to be discussed: It is said in the appendices that the Nazgul occupied Minas Ithil (and the Palantir located there) after a long siege, almost 1000 years before the time of LotR. I wonder how Gondor at this point could lose a fortress that was probably not much less mighty than Minas Tirith was at the end of the Third Age. Some years before this happened, Gondor was able to utterly defeat the Nazguls' realm of Angmar in the North sending only a small fraction of its whole army. From where did the Nazgul take the troops at this time, to fight a battle that must have been comparable to the siege of Minas Tirith that is reported in LotR? This must imply that Mordor was full of Orcs already at this time, but if this is true, why did Sauron and the Nazgul wait for more than 1000 years until their final attack to Gondor? Is this not an inconsistency in the whole plot (or did Shelob play some role in turning Minas Ithil to Minas Morgul)? By the way, please excuse that I cannot give exact quotations here, since I only have (German) translations of the books. But I know and like Tolkien's books for more than 25 years, and so I have decided to take part in your discussions...