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05-22-2004, 10:24 PM | #1 | ||||||
Wight
Join Date: Oct 2002
Location: Ephel Duath
Posts: 115
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"Morgoth's Ring" or Sauron's Ring?
I have a theory about how the Rings of Power actually worked. Admittedly, this is going to be rather speculative, but as far as I know, doesn't contradict anything Tolkien wrote, and may help to explain a few things.
To begin with, the Valar (and to a lesser extent, the Maiar) dispersed much of their original power into the substance of Middle-earth. This was particularly true of Melkor (a.k.a Morgoth), who early on had fought the other 14 Valar combined to a standstill. Quote:
To a lesser extent, the same applies to the other Valar as well: Quote:
Tolkien makes it clear that Morgoth's dispersed power is still there: Quote:
So as to the individual Rings: The One Ring uses Melkor's dispersed power. It was made by Sauron, Morgoth's servent, and its will (which is imposed on anyone who tries to use it) is to dominate the entire world (wasn't that why Melkor dispersed his power in the first place?) Also, it is much more powerful than any of the other rings--because Melkor dispersed more of his power into the world than any other Vala. The Three Rings; Vilya, Narya, and Nenya; use the dispersed power of the Vala Manwë, Aulë, and Ulmo; respectively. Quote:
The Seven Rings don't seem to be connected to a particular Vala, but rather to Gold, as according to the dwarves, they multiply wealth. Unfortunately,... Quote:
Quote:
So, let's see how this theory addresses some questions: Was it Sauron's will in the Ring? Yes and no. Sauron made the One Ring, and put most of his own power into it. And he created it to gain domination over the world. But the corruption that the Ring works on it bearer is also a consequence of the Ring being a focal point for Morgoth's dispersed will, which is far stronger than Sauron's. For this reason, no one, not even the Valar, could make the Ring anything but an instrument of evil (since this would require Melkor's reformation, which was proved to be beyond their abilities). In this view, by creating the Ring, and thus linking his power to Morgoth's, Sauron makes himself irrevocably evil and Morgoth's proxy in Arda. This also explains why Elrond says that the Valar would not permit the Ring to be carried into the West: letting the Ring into Valinor would be tantamount to letting Morgoth in. Also, this answers the question: if making magic rings was a surefire way to increase one's power, why didn't Morgoth make one? Well, since it was his power to begin with that the One Ring ended up using, what would be the point? He dispersed his power consciously in an attempt to gain control over the physical world. Finally, a minor point: Saruman was the wizard chosen by Aulë, so the fact that Cirdan gave the ring which made use of Aulë's power to Gandalf instead upset Saruman in part because being Aulë's choice among the Istari made him (in his mind anyway) the rightful bearer. This theory is probably unprovable from anything Tolkien wrote, but I would be interested in hearing your views and whether it is contradicted by anything written. |
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