Was it legit?

[Boromir88]

Now, I hope I have you wondering what the heck this title means. Well, to start with a clue, I'm questioning whether Isildur's line had a legitimate claim to the throne of Gondor. But, surprisingly, not whether Arvedui had a legitimate claim, but whether Aragorn's claim was legit.

As we see Arvedui's claim was rejected. He claimed to be the heir of Isildur, and that Isildur had not intended Gondor and Arnor to be split forever. The Council (along with Pelendur) disagrees and declares that only male heirs of Anarion can claim the throne of Gondor. With this being "declared" I wonder if Aragorn's claim is legitimate, or whether he was able to get the throne of Gondor because of the political vaccuum and the struggle Gondor was in.

As we see in the Silmarillion, Of The Rings of Power and the Third Age...

For [Isildur] forsook the South Kingdom for her purposed to take up his father's realm in Eriador

Forsook means to renounce, or give up something you hold dear.

I think Arvedui was right in saying that Isildur had not intended both kingdoms to be split. He was going to take up the high kingship of his father, and he placed Meneldil as ruler of Gondor until that time. However, is Isildur able to take up this claim? Does he not get ambushed and killed before he was able to? (For I don't know if Letters which I have not read sort of expands on this) If that's the case, then Isildur's line does not have a claim to the throne. And that the Council, finding a loophole, declares that since Isildur "renounced" his rule in Gondor, Arvedui has no claim.

So, now I ask why is Aragorn able to claim the throne? If supposedly he has no claim. Is it because there's a difference that Aragorn claims to be Elendil's heir, therefor wishing taking up the claim of high kingship and ruling both kingdoms? Or, is it the timely fashion that Aragorn decides to make his claim.

He arrives on Pelennor and is seen by Gondor as their "saviour." Also, the political vaccuum that's created with Denethor's death, Gandalf temporarily taking command, then Imrahil, and then Faramir, with this political strife does it make Aragorn's claim to the throne easier for him? Does he have a claim or is it his timely arrival...or possibly both? Something, I've kind of been wondering about.