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#1 | |
Gruesome Spectre
Join Date: Dec 2000
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After recently re-reading TTT, I was wondering about a relatively small bit of dialogue from the mouth of Saruman, directed at King Théoden when Gandalf confronted Saruman at Isengard.
After Théoden turned down flat Saruman's proposal of an alliance between himself and Rohan, Saruman became rather irate, and said to the king: Quote:
So what could Saruman have meant? What did he offer to Théoden, and how?
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#2 |
Pilgrim Soul
Join Date: May 2004
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Or it could mean that any communication was before Saruman had wronged Théoden, first by the wiles of Grima and then by the military assaults in which we know from Unfinished Tales that Théodred was specifically targeted. If Theodred, Eomer and Elfhelm hadn't taken matters into their own hands Rohan would probably have been in the hands of Saruman before Gandalf and co could intervene.
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#3 |
A Voice That Gainsayeth
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I'm with Mith, obviously (or so I always thought) it refers to some time much earlier on. In ages past, Saruman had the habit to visit newly crowned kings of Rohan, who knows if he did something similar with Théoden? Also, there probably were attempts (logical) as his ambitions progressed to make political alliances, or to get under his control the neighbouring powers, be it more directly (probably the case of lot of the folk from Dunland) or less directly (Rohan, later through Gríma). If Saruman had been actually able to slowly enlist Rohan to his cause, without having to battle it first, it would have made things much easier (starting already in the years of searching for the Ring near Anduin, but also later, plus eventually with, say, attack on Gondor or whatever).
Altogether, I also don't think Théoden's quote implies they haven't talked to each other before. It really just implies it didn't happen after Saruman revealed himself as the enemy. Another option is that they didn't actually talk face to face, but that Saruman's offer had, back then, the form of, say, a diplomatic letter. But I think it really rather makes sense that Saruman had once talked to Théoden in person, and now Théoden is saying that he would like to speak to the enemy (as opposed to the peaceful neighbour he used to know), after he has done him so much wrong.
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#4 | |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Oct 2008
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I agree with what you said here, Legate:
Quote:
It was on 10th July 3018 that Saruman revealed his true ambitions to Gandalf, and imprisoned him in Orthanc when he would not join him. Gandalf was not able to escape until 18th September, and to gain entrance to Edoras on 20th September, when he tried to alert Théoden and his people. It was on 25th February 3019 that the First Battle of the Fords of Isen took place, the first major battle of Saruman against Rohan, the same date the Fellowship camped at Parth Galen. The parley with Saruman took place on 5th March, two days after the Battle of the Hornburg, three days after the Second Battle of the Fords of Isen. |
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#5 | ||
Gruesome Spectre
Join Date: Dec 2000
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Quote:
Quote:
That certainly gives the impression that Saruman had never seen Théoden in person.
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#6 | |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Aug 2012
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Quote:
I think the most likely situation is that which Legate mentioned - there were probably occasionally messages between Isengard and Edoras on this matter or that. I imagine them typically being initiated by Saruman when there was some situation in which it would be advantageous for him if Rohan was to do one thing or another. He would of course always phrase these messages as if it was in Rohan's best interest as well. If Saruman had "long ago" offered Théoden a state beyond his "merit" and "wit" is it possible that perhaps at some point early in Théoden's reign, when Saruman was making more tentative steps towards becoming a Power, he sent such a message to Théoden? Saruman began to fortify Isengard in 2953 but didn't start communicating with Sauron until 3000, while Théoden became King of the Mark in 2980. It seems to fit rather neatly, although Appendix A states that Saruman's "designs towards Rohan, though he hid them, were evil" even that early. Perhaps to an extent he hid them from himself as well. Note that Thengel had been an ally of "Thorongil" and therefore would probably, like Ecthelion II, have been encouraged to trust in Gandalf rather than Saruman. Thorongil-Aragorn stopped adventuring in 2980 and presumably returned to the North, so he would not have been available to give the same counsel to Théoden, but it's possible that Thengel passed the advice on to his son at some point before his death. It's possible that Saruman sent a message to Théoden proposing a more serious military alliance which Théoden refused, which caused Saruman to eventually resort to using Wormtongue to corrupt the will of the King. The Tolkien Gateway gives 3014 as the date when Théoden's health began to fail but I can't find that in the Appendices, can anyone confirm or deny that?
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#7 | |
A Voice That Gainsayeth
Join Date: Nov 2006
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Quote:
Not that I'd personally hold the opinion, but I like that idea. As to the other possibility, that Saruman did actually never speak to Théoden in person, in that case I would think the offer would likely be something along the lines of the diplomatic note, like I mentioned, and possibly aiming towards the wording "let's team up, I will make you more powerful than Gondor, you can rule as far as Anduin Vales where your ancestors used to live (and you can then help me assure nobody but me searches the Anduin Vales in case certain Ring is still somewhere there, as a bonus)", possibly even: "hint hint, under me you could become the ruler of a great empire including former Gondor, for who needs Gondor?" Or something similar. Either that, or "evil" can be used broadly here, because if you want to establish alliance with Rohan, but effectively make it your puppet state and use it only as a weapon for your wars, then it certainly isn't "good" design.
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"Should the story say 'he ate bread,' the dramatic producer can only show 'a piece of bread' according to his taste or fancy, but the hearer of the story will think of bread in general and picture it in some form of his own." -On Fairy-Stories |
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#8 |
Pilgrim Soul
Join Date: May 2004
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Not isn't the same as never though. It is still ambiguous. But I don't have enough access to texts to look further.
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“But Finrod walks with Finarfin his father beneath the trees in Eldamar.”
Christopher Tolkien, Requiescat in pace |
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