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Old 07-15-2011, 09:43 AM   #1
ArquenoSingollo72
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The Northern Kingdoms

One of the most intriguing and frustrating pieces of the history of the Dunedain for me is the separation of Arnor
into the three sister realms of Arthedain, Cardolan and Rhudaur. Tolkien gave us very little information to go on,
i was wondering if anyone out there had their own theories why or indeed why Tolkien was reticent on the subject of Arnor when we
have a relatively detailed history of Gondor from the same period.
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Old 07-15-2011, 10:00 AM   #2
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Well, the "histories" given in the Appendices of Arnor and Gondor were supposedly obtained by the hobbit authors, and I would suspect that at the time of the War of the Ring much more was generally known about the history of Gondor than of Arnor. That's borne out, I think, by the fact that the Heirs of Elendil existed for so long unnoticed by most. Probably in the archives of Minas Tirith there were more details of the disunion of Arnor, and maybe at Fornost or Annúminas, but who had searched them?
Oh, Gandalf, Elrond, and likely Aragorn knew some more information about the matter, but it just doesn't appear to have been a major concern of the hobbits to go into detail about it.

As for why the sons of Eärendur began fighting, maybe it began out of a petty dispute about the way the kingdom was being run, and was escalated by personal grudges and jealousies. That's pretty general, I know, but RL kingdoms have been known to fall from such small beginnings.
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Old 07-16-2011, 11:26 AM   #3
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An easy explanation suggests itself in here. Tolkien just never got into writing about the Northern Kingdoms as he had more interesting stuff to think and write about. I mean we know a lot about some places and people (elves, maiar...) but astonishingly little about others. I don't think the prof had any "secret reasons" for posterity to ponder upon why there was such little on some subjects - he just made what he had time for for those things he was more interested himself.

Had he lived for a hundred years we might have the "Histories of the Northern Kingdoms" as well to read?

And what others books could we read then?

"The Maiar: a full account of their birth, relations and deeds"
"The History of the Elves staying in Valinor"
"The fates of the Dwarves of Nogrod"
"Chronicle of the Haradrim"
"The Childhood of Tom Bombadill"
"Traditional Easterling Folklore"
"The secret uncloaked: Wings or Not? The Full History of the Balrogs"

Invent your own!
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Old 08-01-2011, 11:37 AM   #4
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The 'unexplained vistas' is a great part of Tolkien's attraction, if he explained every little bit of his world and its history, well, they'd be no need for this forum for one!
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Old 08-02-2011, 03:34 PM   #5
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Old 08-03-2011, 08:26 AM   #6
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Old 10-27-2013, 08:32 AM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ArquenoSingollo72 View Post
One of the most intriguing and frustrating pieces of the history of the Dunedain for me is the separation of Arnor into the three sister realms of Arthedain, Cardolan and Rhudaur. Tolkien gave us very little information to go on, i was wondering if anyone out there had their own theories why or indeed why Tolkien was reticent on the subject of Arnor when we have a relatively detailed history of Gondor from the same period.
I've pondered this a bit myself over the years. Of the event there are a couple possibilities.
One could just be a case of bad parenting. Since little is said of King Eärendur other than he split the kingdom between his sons. Another could be that Eärendur didn't like his eldest son Amlaith for any number of reasons and so split the kingdom amongst the sons.
As for Tolkien ot expanding on this or the other subjects mention, well, he did have a full time job as a Professor, and raised a family. I doubt he could have covered everything had he spent every waking moment writing in the world of Middle Earth
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Old 10-28-2013, 04:08 AM   #8
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Re: the "triplets" hypothesis: it seems to me that if Tolkien had meant something as noteworthy as that to be the reason for the split, he would have said so.
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Old 10-30-2013, 04:04 PM   #9
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Originally Posted by ArquenoSingollo72 View Post
i was wondering if anyone out there had their own theories why or indeed why Tolkien was reticent on the subject of Arnor when we
have a relatively detailed history of Gondor from the same period.
I think Gondor was the part of the kingdom that came more into play in the annals of Middle-earth. It was the last buffer against Mordor and for the most part was the more powerful of the 2 kingdoms. It's kings were longer lived and had the greater glory. The kingdom also never broke apart. However, the part of the family that was supposed to hold the high kingship did appear to make Arnor their homes, and Isildur was on his way home from Gondor when he got killed. I think maybe their histories would have followed basically the same arc except for some of the more noble houses, where in Gondor they started to become subject to mating with Middle Men, in Arnor and afterwards they tended to keep it in house. Of course few houses remained relatively pure in Gondor and even from the nobles of Dol Amroth one of the women, Morwen, married a Rohirrim and we have Thingol, his sister, and their 3 children. Eventually 2 of their descendants did marry back into the high houses in Gondor, Éomer with Imrahil's daughter, and his sister Éowyn into the Steward's House with Faramir.

Vying for the throne is not anything new among the Dúnedain as Soronto wanted to get the throne from his first cousin Ancalimë way back in early Númenor. Of course the famous one of grave effect in the Southern Kingdom involved Eldacar and Castamir.
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Old 11-03-2013, 08:47 AM   #10
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I think maybe their histories would have followed basically the same arc except for some of the more noble houses, where in Gondor they started to become subject to mating with Middle Men, in Arnor and afterwards they tended to keep it in house. Of course few houses remained relatively pure in Gondor and even from the nobles of Dol Amroth one of the women, Morwen, married a Rohirrim and we have Thingol, his sister, and their 3 children. Eventually 2 of their descendants did marry back into the high houses in Gondor, Éomer with Imrahil's daughter, and his sister Éowyn into the Steward's House with Faramir.
It seems to me that the very blood-purity that set Arnor apart from Gondor, and ultimately resulted in the return of a king that would rule both kingdoms, was also what hastened its initial fall.
Gondor's intermingling with the lesser Men of Middle-earth gave it the manpower to stand as a bulwark against Mordor and its allies even after such calamities as the plague and the Kin-strife, whereas the Witch-king went north and simply wore down Arnor over time through attrition.
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Old 11-06-2013, 09:43 AM   #11
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I suspect that the division of Arnor was inspired by the fate of many RW Germanic kingdoms, including Charlemagne's empire; it was a byproduct of the ultimately destructive old Teutonic custom of dividing an inheritance among the sons rather than adhering to primogeniture.

Of course Gondor was also weakened by civil war, but there it was a faction-fight over a single crown rather than armed squabbles between, say, Belfalas and Anorien.
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Old 11-07-2013, 10:35 AM   #12
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I suspect that the division of Arnor was inspired by the fate of many RW Germanic kingdoms, including Charlemagne's empire; it was a byproduct of the ultimately destructive old Teutonic custom of dividing an inheritance among the sons rather than adhering to primogeniture.

Of course Gondor was also weakened by civil war, but there it was a faction-fight over a single crown rather than armed squabbles between, say, Belfalas and Anorien.
Arnor wasn't helped by the Witch-king's appearance, either. He apparently introduced evil men into Rhudaur, and that seems to have worsened the division.
It makes one wonder that if Gondor had had an external force actively fomenting dissension, could it have avoided the fate of its northern twin?
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Old 11-07-2013, 11:24 AM   #13
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Arnor wasn't helped by the Witch-king's appearance, either. He apparently introduced evil men into Rhudaur, and that seems to have worsened the division.
It makes one wonder that if Gondor had had an external force actively fomenting dissension, could it have avoided the fate of its northern twin?

Gondor did- it is IMO pretty clear that Harad (under Sauron/Nazgul influence, and its ruling caste of Black Numenoreans) were backing Castamir in fomenting the Kinstrife.

Arnor broke up long before the Witch-King came north- in fact it was the rise of Angmar which forced the squabbling sub-kingdoms to unite (or at least Arthedain and Cardolan, Rhudaur being a lost cause)
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