Visit The *EVEN NEWER* Barrow-Downs Photo Page |
|
10-07-2006, 03:58 PM | #1 |
Guest
Posts: n/a
|
Sorcery
What did Tolkein have to say about the subject of Sorcery? How much of it did Sauron aqcuire from his own accord through experimentation alone? Great spells were mastered by the Lord of the Nazgul & the Mouth of Sauron, yet they must have had a source. Was it possible for anyone (including Hobbits) to master these spells?
Last edited by Mansun; 10-08-2006 at 05:40 AM. |
10-07-2006, 09:55 PM | #2 |
Itinerant Songster
Join Date: Jan 2002
Location: The Edge of Faerie
Posts: 7,066
|
Tolkien wrote one letter (at least a draft) on the subject. In one dated in the Fall of 1954 he distinguishes between two kinds of magic: magia and goeteia. Both sides use both in LotR, with different motives. Magia is working with natural things and changing something about them, like producing fire from wet wood. Goeteia is calling up spirits of some kind, which in Middle Earth, would be Maiar, I suppose, or perhaps the dead, like Aragorn did in the Paths of the Dead. So Tolkien distinguishes between good and evil magic by motive and purpose rather than by type.
By talking about "spells to be mastered", it seems you're talking about magia. Tolkien also says in his About Hobbits section before the beginning of LotR that Hobbits don't do magic, except for the seeming 'magic' of hiding from lumbering humans. Spells seem to have been the domain of Gandalf and Elves, though Dwarves seem to have had some knowledge of rune spells. Men seem to have tended toward goeteia. |
10-07-2006, 11:29 PM | #3 | |
Shade of Carn Dûm
Join Date: Apr 2004
Location: Washington, D. C., USA
Posts: 299
|
Cambridge Dictionaries Online defines sorcery as:
Quote:
Clearly, Aragorn used the same kind of power to bring the Dead with him from the Paths of the Dead. In Middle Earth, magic of all kinds is neutral, but the motive on how it is used defines whether it is Good or Evil. Tolkien was a Catholic, and I was raised as such. As a student of Mythology and Religion (inextricable from word-history), Tolkien would have been aware of those religions (such as Voudon [Voodoo] and Santaria, to name a couple], that pray to the Saints for some kind of intervention, but would also have known that praying to the Catholic Saints for their intervention was really no different, except for the motives of the individuals doing the asking. Good and Evil lie in the human heart, not in the means uesd to achieve their particular end. There is at least as much "positive" motive behind Voodoo as there is 'negative.' It's not all about just sacrificing chickens and goats. In The Hobbit , Tolkien names Sauron "The Necromancer," another name for a sorcerer. A necromancer raises the Dead. Appropriate, considering he was probably reviving the Nazgul at the time. They weren't dead, but they were certainly no longer alive. Who else might he have been raising from the Dead? Or was Sorcery just a "Front" to make him look more human (Numenorian)? He fled as soon as he was discovered. What does it take to persuade someone away from the Halls of Mandos? And how do you effect their escape? And, what if they are human and have already departed the Circles of the World? How do you get them back? It's a tricksy sort of magic, this Sorcery. The other kind taps into the power of Middle Earth itself, much easier. Nearly as easy as performing magic here, in the real world.
__________________
But all the while I sit and think of times there were before, I listen for returning feet and voices at the door. |
|
10-08-2006, 11:11 AM | #4 |
Guest
Posts: n/a
|
Did Tolkien have anything to say about how powerful the Mouth of Sauron was? If he was ever in Sauron's favour & learned great sorcery from him, was he even higher in rank in Mordor than the Witch-King?
|
10-08-2006, 02:45 PM | #5 |
Guest
Posts: n/a
|
The Mouth of Sauron was more powerful than the witch king, of course. Otherwise Sauron would have named the witch king Barad Dur's lieutenent.
|
10-08-2006, 03:53 PM | #6 |
Itinerant Songster
Join Date: Jan 2002
Location: The Edge of Faerie
Posts: 7,066
|
I think it fair to equate Goetia with Sorcery and Magia with Spells. So I would have to disagree with your suggestion, Boromir. Saruman did not use evil spirits for the explosions, as far as we know; at least, the text of LotR doesn't suggest it in any way.
As for the Mouth of Sauron versus the Witch King, the Rings were all about sorcery as their power resulted in the undeadness of the Ringwraiths. They were not dead but they were not alive in a human physical sense: they were in the negative Ring-world, which seems identifiable with the spirit world. Think of Weathertop and Frodo's 'vision' of Glorfindel as a being of white flame at the ford. So the Mouth of Sauron is 'into' sorcery, for he is apparently using the power of evil spirits to prolong his life far beyond that of his fellow humans; but he, unlike the ringwraiths, is not undead. Whereas the Mouth is lieutenant of Barad-Dur, the Witch King is 'field marshall', for all practical purposes, of the armies of Mordor, and lieutenant at Minas Morgul; so they are equal in rank, having different kinds of roles. The Mouth's is 'political', whereas the Witchking's is military. Both are slaves of Sauron. Who is more powerful? I'm not sure. The Witchking is single-minded, having no more self-will (though he is self-conscious enough to understand the prophecy about himself), and is therefore a very effective tool. The Mouth is vain and ambitious and a coward for all his dubious control over evil spirits, and still wears his "mortal coils", and for all his power still loves his life, which in a certain sense translates as a weakness and lack of singlemindedness. Will he die for the sake of Sauron if offered his life in exchange for betraying him? One has to wonder. For me the single-mindedness and ferocious will to do every last thing Sauron wants makes the Witchking seem more powerful to me than the cowardly, obsequious Mouth. |
10-09-2006, 01:45 PM | #7 | |
Guest
Posts: n/a
|
Quote:
The Witch King was probably chosen as Captain as this was to be his forte - to drive the armies of Mordor into madness before the host of Gondor; he was certainly no political figure & was utterly corrupted by the Ring. The Mouth of Sauron was yet free of any such power, & through his cunning had grown into Sauron's favour. As somone said in an earlier post, the Mouth of Sauron was mainly a political figure for Sauron, to speak for him as best he could. If the throne of the Dark Lord was ever to become vacant, it would have been interesting to see if the Witch King would claim the title of Dark Lord ahead of the Mouth of Sauron? Last edited by Mansun; 10-09-2006 at 01:53 PM. |
|
10-07-2006, 10:39 PM | #8 | ||||||
Laconic Loreman
|
Before I can maybe shed some light on 'sorcery' in Tolkien, I think it will be good to give a little background of magic in general.
I think magic comes in two basic forms in Tolkien's story...the Art Form and the Sorcery Form. The Art form is the creative side of magic...healing, entertainment, protecting. This is the form that Elves seems to be most comfortable with. It tends to be the better side of magic. Some examples...Gandalf's Fireworks, Elrond or Aragorn's healing abilities, Galadriel's mirror. Then there is the Sorcery form, which is the offensive or destructive magic. Sorcery is much easier to be used for evil purposes, although I don't think Sorcery is always, all the time, 'evil.' It's just that Sorcery is much easier to use for the purposes of Evil, than the art side of magic. Quote:
goeteia, sounds more to be the psychological mind games. The Enemy uses goeteia to dominate over other wills, install fear and sub-ordination. Where the Elves and those like use goeteia entirely for artistic purposes. (Galadriel perhaps as an example?) Then comes magia, which is actual physical effects in the world...Tolkien notes the fire in the wet faggot. Again, here magia isn't bad by nature, but can be used for evil purposes...all depending upon the motives one uses it. Is it for beneficial reasons, as Gandalf uses? Or is it to destroy and bulldoze? The best example of Sorcery I can give is Saruman's 'Fire of Orthanc.' A lot of people tend to think that the explosions Saruman employs at Helm's Deep was just first invention of gunpowder. I however, think it's clear Saruman uses his skill in sorcery to create the explosives. Letter 155 goes on to say: Quote:
However, I don't think that Sorcery is evil at all, just the motives one uses it are, and since it is more of the offensive form of magic, it is more easily used with evil motives than the artistic form. Elves were most comfortable with with the Art form, though Sorcery could be useful to them as well...as an example Finrod's confrontation with Sauron on the isle of Tol Sirion. Quote:
The Nazgul got theirs from their rings: Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Edit: As I was posting along with lmp...this is just something I have thought about. Perhaps we have magia (the physical, actual effects in the world) the goeteia (the mental effects) and both can be broken down into the Artistic form of magic and the Sorcery form of magic?
__________________
Fenris Penguin
Last edited by Boromir88; 10-07-2006 at 10:44 PM. |
||||||
10-09-2006, 11:43 AM | #9 | ||
Eagle of the Star
Join Date: Jan 2006
Location: Sarmisegethuza
Posts: 1,058
|
Quote:
Quote:
|
||
10-09-2006, 01:07 PM | #10 |
Late Istar
Join Date: Mar 2001
Posts: 2,224
|
I wish I had time for a long, well-reasoned post on this interesting subject. But I offer only a minor note, in connection with the issue of humans using magic.
Raynor is right to point out that the 'blade of Westernesse' issue might be solved by the fact that the Numenoreans had some Elvish blood. But I wonder why, if such an easy solution was available, Tolkien still considered it a problem. In any case, I don't know how much authority ought to be attributed to the letter, since Tolkien himself seems to have reconsidered it and, as I recall, never sent it in the end. Also, I can think of two further, and to my mind much more problematic, examples of Men using magic. First is Beorn. I know, some will say that The Hobbit shouldn't count, as it was written as a children's book and not originally intended to be part of the mythology. But all indications are that Tolkien did come to consider it a valid, and indeed important, part of his Legendarium. One could, I suppose, say that Beorn was not in fact a human. But this, I think, substitutes a greater problem for a lesser one: if he was not human, what in Arda was he? The second example is that of the Druedain. That this people is in the possession of some kind of magical skill is quite evident from the essay on them in UT and, particularly, from the story of 'The Faithful Stone' told there. When one adds these instances to the examples of the Mouth of Sauron's claim to be a sorcerer, Isildur's curse upon the Dead Men, Aragorn's healing skills, and the blade of Westernesse, I think it becomes evident, or at least probable, that Men can in fact use magic. |
10-09-2006, 01:20 PM | #11 | |||||
Eagle of the Star
Join Date: Jan 2006
Location: Sarmisegethuza
Posts: 1,058
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
|||||
|
|