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Originally Posted by Gothmog
Inglorion=Son of Inglor. Inglor Felagund=Finrod Felagund. But we know that Finrod (=the "modern" Finrod from now on) left his beloved Amarië in the Undying Lands. If Gildor indeed was Finrod's son he would have been the rightful Highking of Noldor after Gil-Galad and taken over Nargothrond after his father, instead of Orodreth. Besides, no son of Finrod is ever mentioned. Could Amarie have given birth to a child after Finrod went to ME? Maybe, but how would Gildor get across the sea? I don't know of any elves arriving from the west, only sailing to the west (resurrected Glorfindel could be an exception).
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Hmm... In the War of Wrath a host of Vanyar came to Middle-Earth with valar to fight Morgoth. If Gildor was born in Valinor (and was a son of Finrod and Amarië), maybe he came to Middle-Earth then and stayed there. Why would he come, I've no idea. But since Tolkien was a conservative, and Amarië is described just the 'beloved' of Finrod Felagund, so maybe he (Tolkien) wouldn't write them to have children because they weren't married.
And I'm not so sure about the Inglorion... Does it really mean someone's son? I know the -ion ending is an possessive (fg. Heren Istar
ion is the Brotherhood
of wizards), and it would be logical that it means someone's son. Where did you anyway get that information, Gothmog?